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Let us say that I commit a blunder in a chess game. One that is deserving for a ??, a mate in one let us say. My opponent misses it. With what mark should the move be written in a pgn? Left markless, or with a ?!. Or perhaps with something else?

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    If the blunder allows a mate in 1 instead of a mate in 4, it probably doesn't really deserve a "??". A double question mark is usually reserved for a move that completely reverses the evaluation of the position (i.e. equal to lost or winning to equal). – Andrew Aug 19 '14 at 20:55
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In the specific case you give, both the move that allowed the mate in one and the move that failed to take it are clear ??'s: they're both absoutely terrible moves.

  • I don't fully agree with you. I think that the opponent's move doesn't deserve ??. It is too harsh. What if he won a pawn or something similar? – MikhailTal Aug 11 '14 at 7:37
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    "Forget it. Checkmate wins the game." - Nigel Short. – David Richerby Aug 11 '14 at 7:56
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A blunder is a blunder regardless of the opponent's response. Allowing mate in one in a playable position always deserves a ?? if you are adding annotations to a game.

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    What about my opponent's move. How should that be marked. That is my question. – MikhailTal Aug 11 '14 at 7:36
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    I would agree with David Richerby, that the opponent deserves a ?? as well. Missing a mate in one is not excusable for either side. – Cleveland Aug 11 '14 at 11:41

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