Let us say that I commit a blunder in a chess game. One that is deserving for a ??, a mate in one let us say. My opponent misses it. With what mark should the move be written in a pgn? Left markless, or with a ?!. Or perhaps with something else?

  • 1
    If the blunder allows a mate in 1 instead of a mate in 4, it probably doesn't really deserve a "??". A double question mark is usually reserved for a move that completely reverses the evaluation of the position (i.e. equal to lost or winning to equal).
    – Andrew
    Aug 19 '14 at 20:55

In the specific case you give, both the move that allowed the mate in one and the move that failed to take it are clear ??'s: they're both absoutely terrible moves.

  • I don't fully agree with you. I think that the opponent's move doesn't deserve ??. It is too harsh. What if he won a pawn or something similar?
    – MikhailTal
    Aug 11 '14 at 7:37
  • 3
    "Forget it. Checkmate wins the game." - Nigel Short. Aug 11 '14 at 7:56

A blunder is a blunder regardless of the opponent's response. Allowing mate in one in a playable position always deserves a ?? if you are adding annotations to a game.

  • 1
    What about my opponent's move. How should that be marked. That is my question.
    – MikhailTal
    Aug 11 '14 at 7:36
  • 2
    I would agree with David Richerby, that the opponent deserves a ?? as well. Missing a mate in one is not excusable for either side.
    – Cleveland
    Aug 11 '14 at 11:41

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.