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[FEN "rnbqkb1r/pp4pp/2p1pn2/3p1p2/3P4/BP4PN/P1P1PPBP/RN1QK2R b KQkq - 0 1"]
[StartFlipped "0"]
1... Bxa3 2.Nxa3 Qa5+ 3.Kf1 Qxa3
FEN: rnbqkb1r/pp4pp/2p1pn2/3p1p2/3P4/BP4PN/P1P1PPBP/RN1QK2R b - - 0 1
I thought that the solution would be equivalent to 1... Qa5+ 2. Kf1 Bxa3 3. Nxa3 Qxa3. But apparently, my solution is wrong. What is the difference between these two sequences? Why should you take the White bishop first?
The answer was given in a comment:
After your Qa5+ how do you make White play Kf1? What do you do if he plays Qd2?
This is correct. There's really nothing you can do after Qa5+ Qd2 that gives Black a significant advantage.
He can play Qd2 after Bxa3; Nxa3 Qa5; too right?
White can play that, but it doesn't help in that position. You can take the knight with your queen. (If you played Qa5+ first, then ...Qxa3 loses to Nxa3, and ...Bxa3 is obviously responded to with Qxa5.)
[FEN "rnbqkb1r/pp4pp/2p1pn2/3p1p2/3P4/BP4PN/P1P1PPBP/RN1QK2R b KQkq - 0 1"]
[startflipped ""]
1... Bxa3 (1... Qa5+ 2. Qd2 Qxa3? (2... Qxd2+ 3. Kxd2 Bxa3 4. Nxa3 {Material is even.}) (2... Bxa3 3. Qxa5 Bb2 4. Qb4 Bxa1 {Rook and bishop for the queen for now, although Black's bishop may get trapped. Certainly White has the advantage.}) 3. Nxa3 Bxa3 {Two pieces for the queen; White is clearly ahead.}) 2. Nxa3 Qa5+ 3. Qd2 Qxa3 {Black is up a knight.}