This puzzle on chesstempo caught my eye. We play as Black:
[FEN "r2qk2r/1p1bppbp/p1np2p/4P2n/Q8/2N2N1P/PPP2PPB/R3KB1R w - - 0 1"]
1. exd6
My solution is: if we play 1... Nb..., a discovered attack by the bishop on a White queen takes place. Therefore, we shall use this knight wisely. The interesting thing we may do is threatening a fork on the king and on the rook (2... Nc2+) playing Nbd4. It is the right move:
[FEN "r2qk2r/1p1bppbp/p1np2p/4P2n/Q8/2N2N1P/PPP2PPB/R3KB1R w - - 0 1"]
1. exd6 Nbd4
I wanted to make the White queen move so it would be no longer defending the c2, making the fork possible (that would something like 2. Qc4):
[FEN "r2qk2r/1p1bppbp/p1np2p/4P2n/Q8/2N2N1P/PPP2PPB/R3KB1R w - - 0 1"]
1. exd6 Nbd4
2. Qc4 Nc2+
3. Kd2 Na1
And yet, the White plays 2. Qxd4 and gives Black the queen. Then White captures the bishop:
[FEN "r2qk2r/1p1bppbp/p1np2p/4P2n/Q8/2N2N1P/PPP2PPB/R3KB1R w - - 0 1"]
1. exd6 Nbd4
2. Qxd4 Bxd4
3. Nxd4
The only reason as to why White would answer this way I found afterwards is White not losing a piece (they get to capture the knight, which couldn't have been captured after the fork) and losing the same material (-Queen + Bishop = -8 + 3 = -5 = -Rook). Yet this seems a bit weak. If I were White, I would have played the other way. Yet, I am no old hand in chess, so there is no good reason to trust my gut. What is more important here: not to lose the queen, or not to lose the pieces? Anyway, why does White play 2. Qxd4?