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So, I looked on the lichess analysis board and played around with it for a while, and I couldn't find any reason why 2...c5 isn't considered an accurate response to 1 d4 d5 2 c4. Does anyone know why this is?

  • How did you "play around" with it? Be specific. – Jossie Calderon Jun 2 '17 at 21:19
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After 3. cxd5, any sensical black response is met with 4. dxc5. The time it takes for black to regain those pawns is lost on white's development, e.g. 4... e6 5. e4! exd5 6. Bb5+ Nc6 (or Bd7 7. Bxd7 Qxd7 8. Nd2) 7. Nc3.

White's opened up the center - favorable because of black's daft, dithering development - and obtains a game with winning chances.

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    It's hard to follow your analysis out to move 7 or 8 without knowing what Black played on move 3. – bof Jun 3 '17 at 5:20
  • Again, "any sensical black response". @bof Please do not be lazy and read! – Jossie Calderon Jun 3 '17 at 6:19
  • @JossieCalderon Please be aware that nobody but you knows what moves you mean when you write "any sensical black response". – Scounged Jun 3 '17 at 11:35
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    The most "sensical" response is 3...Qxd5 or 3...Nf6 but your continuation doesn't make a whole lot of sense. 4...e6 does not seem very "sensical". – bof Jun 3 '17 at 18:09

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