[Title "Black to move"]
[FEN "3k4/3r4/8/8/p7/8/4K3/1N6 w - - 0 1"]

1... 58. Kc7 59. Nc3

McDonald notes that if 59...a3, then "60 Nb5 wins it." I don't understand why this wins it. Can't the King just deflect the check and continue the game? Or by saying "... wins it", does McDonald mean that after that, the game is practically a win as he can mate easily?

If anything, I'd assume it'd just be another draw. Can someone please clarify?

2 Answers 2


I suspect he means wins the pawn, as opposed to the game. A lone knight is insufficient material to mate, and black would have to cooperate to be mated with the rook vs. knight.

  • hmm, ok, that makes much more sense. Thank you!
    – user13094
    Apr 20, 2017 at 4:55

This looks like a win for black. They should play Kc8, not Kc7, ans then they can bring the king up. White can never take the pawn as it will just move. If the knight moves onto the d-file,then the rook takes it and the pawn runs for a touchdown.

In the? position if black plays Kc7?, then white wins the pawn and the rook vs knight endgame would be tougher to win if at all.

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